How the word 'Logos' is translated and/or understood within the context of John helps determine what meanings can be gleaned from the passage. Logos was a word familiar to the Jews of the 1st century as it was used by the Hellenists, with Philo being chief among them, to denote an intermediary divine being such as a messenger of the Lord that was necessary to bridge the gap between God and the material world. It was also thought of and used as a stand in for the reason, intent, or purpose (e.i. logic) behind one's actions.
All that said, it sure seems likely that the writer of John 1:1-15 was equating Jesus to this intent, message, or "word" of God, especially in verse 14 where it speaks of this logos of god becoming embodied (made flesh). Even with that, we still have no way of knowing the intent of the writer. Was the writer saying Jesus was an avatar used by God to dwell amongst men? Was he saying that Jesus was the embodiment of God's creative intent and the reason behind it all? Who knows?