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Excellent question Gawd
How about this.  Just a little something that I threw together : - )
And it shows – please take more care in future.

'The Word' is equated with the 'Logos' of Greek philosophy.  Another usage of the term 'Logos' is language or discourse.

'The Word' can be understood to be either language or the principle behind language.
Thus as the meaning is uncertain, anything you conclude will be equally uncertain and unreliable if wrong.

Language allows us to differentiate between things.  If we couldn't differentiate then there would just be one big nameless whole.
No – there would be a lot of separate things without names. Imagine you see two small but different insects, merely because you personally do not know their names, it does not mean they are the same.

But after language we have 'things' because we give aspects of our experience (consciousness) names.
No, this can’t be so. ‘Things’ must come before names.

Your mistake reminds me of this:

Adam is given the job of naming all the animals. One day, God asks him, "Why did you call that one a Hippopotamus?"

and Adam replied, "Because it looks like one."

We even name ourselves 'I' and this 'I' somehow seems to separate us from the rest of reality.  So our very selves depend on a name.
Can I suggest an elementary grammar book, where you will find that “I” is a pronoun – i.e. something that stands in place of a noun or name.

A personal name is what we English speakers call, "a proper noun".

1. So through language (esp naming) all things were made!
This is a complete non-sequitur. Think about it a moment. First we see things and then we describe them by one or more words.

A universe of things (matter) was constituted.

Any connection between your reality and that of the rest of human kind is purely coincidental.

Language also differentiates humans from animals.
This is misinformation, pure and simple. I don’t know how else to put it. There is ample evidence for language in lower orders – you seem to be able to speak.

Each of us takes on the name 'I' at some early stage of our lives.

You didn’t read what I said about nouns and pronouns, did you?

And both OT and NT suggest that 'I AM' is the name of God.

Yes, ancient Hebrews were well known for speaking English. That aside, do you think it is possible that some person gave him that name? You know, just invented it as a “stage name” – something like “Sledge Riprock” or “Max Headroom”?  He's also know by a few dozen other names.

2. So in this way we are made in his image.
So… He makes us -> he tells us his name -> his name is “I am” -> the personal pronoun is “I” so …
THERE  MUST BE A GOD!!!!111!!!

And what on earth do you mean by "In His Image"?

So the first name, the first word, what could it be ?  I suppose it would have to be the name of God wouldn't it !?
No, it was probably the pre-palaeolithic equivalent of “Ow!” when you dropped a rock on your foot.

Jesus is alleged to have said 'before Abraham was I am'

Jesus is ‘alleged’ to have said many things – I think you are looking for:
John 17:5 “And now, O Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.”

If you want to progress the cause of mankind; if you want to help people; if you want to make the world a better place – please try thinking critically about what you are writing.

Thank you.
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kcrady A beeautiful demolition of Dominic's half-baked mystoguguery. January 09, 2013, 05:30:43 PM