Author Topic: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?  (Read 433 times)

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Offline skeptic54768

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Re: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?
« Reply #29 on: July 15, 2014, 10:53:41 PM »
I understand.  I don't see it as a point against Christianity, either--only the notion, put forth by some Christians and other religious people, that marriage is and and always has been one man and one woman making a life together.

Can you elaborate on what you mean by this all being obsolete after Christ?

The world was different back then. so, obviously different rules for different circumstances. After Jesus gave up the ghost on the cross, all the OT stuff was rendered obsolete. Even the Jews subconsciously know that Jesus' sacrifice rendered it all obsolete because even they don't follow those laws anymore. When was the last time you saw a Jew sacrifice an animal for sins?
Matthew 10:22 "and you will be hated by all for my name’s sake. But the one who endures to the end will be saved." - Jesus (said 2,000 years ago and still true today.)

Offline Timo

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Re: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?
« Reply #30 on: July 15, 2014, 11:06:10 PM »
Jews don't sacrifice animals because their temple was destroyed.  In the days of the patriarchs, animals were sacrificed at high places.  Before the Israelites established the temple, they sacrificed at the tabernacle.  Once the temple was built, worship was centralized there.  The high places, according to the Biblical narrative, were torn down.  This was all codified in the Law, specifically Deuteronomy.  And in the books of Kings and Chronicles, the kings of Israel are judged as either right or wrong in the eyes of the Lord primarily based on how faithfully Israel worshiped Yahweh under their rule.  Once the temple was destroyed, there was no place to conduct sacrifices that are acceptable in God's eyes.

And with respect to the Law, I don't think it's as cut and dry as some Christians make it out to be.  Surely you still have to keep the 10 commandments, for example.  I've heard it argued that the moral laws are to be kept but the ritualistic laws are to be done away with.  But I'm not sure how well that sort of argument can work when we're supposing that morality is rooted in God and His preferences.
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Offline skeptic54768

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Re: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?
« Reply #31 on: July 15, 2014, 11:26:23 PM »
Jews don't sacrifice animals because their temple was destroyed.  In the days of the patriarchs, animals were sacrificed at high places.  Before the Israelites established the temple, they sacrificed at the tabernacle.  Once the temple was built, worship was centralized there.  The high places, according to the Biblical narrative, were torn down.  This was all codified in the Law, specifically Deuteronomy.  And in the books of Kings and Chronicles, the kings of Israel are judged as either right or wrong in the eyes of the Lord primarily based on how faithfully Israel worshiped Yahweh under their rule. Once the temple was destroyed, there was no place to conduct sacrifices that are acceptable in God's eyes.

And with respect to the Law, I don't think it's as cut and dry as some Christians make it out to be.  Surely you still have to keep the 10 commandments, for example.  I've heard it argued that the moral laws are to be kept but the ritualistic laws are to be done away with.  But I'm not sure how well that sort of argument can work when we're supposing that morality is rooted in God and His preferences.

Thank you for that. Good efforts.

Matthew 10:22 "and you will be hated by all for my name’s sake. But the one who endures to the end will be saved." - Jesus (said 2,000 years ago and still true today.)

Offline Airyaman

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Re: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?
« Reply #32 on: July 16, 2014, 08:29:12 AM »
Thank you for that. Good efforts.

And truthful too, that can be backed up by history, at least 1st century (unlike a certain street preacher).
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Offline OldChurchGuy

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Re: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?
« Reply #33 on: July 17, 2014, 06:46:39 AM »
I am confused.  If I understand things correctly, the truth on a given issue is out there and one must search for it.  The truth might be here or it might be there.  Yet, presenting two interpretations of truth is lazy. 

Which part is confusing? 

A reporter gets a quote from a scientist about climate change.  Then a reporter gets a quote from an Exxon paid lobbyist about climate change.  He then reports, "some say the earth is warming, but others strongly disagree." [1] How does that actually help?  He did not verify what either of them said.  He did not find out which was more likely to be accurate and which is being paid to flat out lie.  In what way does that bring anyone closer to truth?

I think the idea of presenting two opposing ideas goes back some decades back to high school debate.

Possibly.  But that format too is a terrible method for finding the truth for several reasons.  For one, what if both perspectives are wrong?  For two, debates are not won or lost on the merits of the data presented.  The person with the best debate skills does not necessarily have the most knowledge.  And the way to decide who is right, if anyone, is not to argue, but to go observe reality.

The debate forum taught me there are two sides to almost every issue and that learning an alternate viewpoint is beneficial.  I may not agree with it, but at least I will have some idea as to why I disagree with it. 

How does presenting conservapedia's perspective give you any idea as to the merits of what it said?
 1. When reporters begin with "some say", you can be sure they failed to do any actual reporting.  You should immediately ask, "who, specifically, says that?"

You have made your points quite well.  For me, I enjoy presenting two sides as it tends to force a person to think about which side they agree with and, usually, also why.  I use Conservapedia because it is the only avowed conservative resource available on the internet.  If there is a better resource with a more literalist / conservative theology, let me know, please.

Regarding the question about both sources being wrong, my experience has been that people will almost always look for that 3rd alternative.  Which, in turn, means they are thinking as well as seeking understanding.

My apologies for allowing this to get off the main topic of polygamy. 

Sincerely,

OldChurchGuy
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Offline natlegend

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Re: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?
« Reply #34 on: July 26, 2014, 03:52:27 AM »
The world was different back then. so, obviously different rules for different circumstances. After Jesus gave up the ghost on the cross, all the OT stuff was rendered obsolete. Even the Jews subconsciously know that Jesus' sacrifice rendered it all obsolete because even they don't follow those laws anymore. When was the last time you saw a Jew sacrifice an animal for sins?

Such a different, and yet prolific time. For men. And only men.

You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means.

Offline natlegend

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Re: Why did God allow polygamy in the old testament?
« Reply #35 on: July 26, 2014, 04:01:19 AM »
<snip>...After Jesus gave up the ghost on the cross... <snip>

Your Jesus... gave up the ghost??? No wonder him and the Jeez don't get along anymore.
You keep using that word. I do not think it means what you think it means.