Sorry to jump into this thread so late, but there's one thing I don't understand which I'm not sure has been specifically asked:I don't think the knowledge of God's existence will make you his slave.
You say that a person choosing to believe in god based on actual proof that he exists would mean that he is, therefore a slave rather than having a relationship based on free will.
Does this mean that somehow knowing that a person you have a close relationship with (parents, spouses and such) makes you their slave just because you know for a fact that they exist?
I can sort of understand your argument about free will if I really squint my brain, but I still don't get how knowledge of god's existence would automatically make you his slave if you then decided to seek a relationship.
There are people in the world (for example, many of the atheists here that you are talking to
) that do not possess this knowledge of god's existence. Again, for purposes of this thread, we are assuming that god does, in fact, exist
. Presumably, some of the people who lack this knowledge of god's existence do so because they feel that there is insufficient evidence
to support the claim that god exists. And again, we are asserting, for purposes of this thread, that the factual truth
is that god actually
exists. And...some of those people have actively sought out god
to know god; to experience god; to find comfort
Surely god (that we are assuming does, in fact, exist
in this thread) is privy to this information. It's god, The Unquestioned Lord and Master of All RealityTM
!!! He knows
everything...he can do anything
who is seeking him, and how this person can be granted knowledge of his existence (let alone begin any kind of relationship with
But there are those who do not hear. There are those who seek and do not find
If god wants
us to know that he exists (which, in this thread, is a fact of reality
), then why does he not
make his existence unquestionably known
? You initially said 'free will', but your response above rejects that answer.
Lukvance, you started this thread under the premise that god does, in fact, exist
and that he does, in fact, obscure his existence
. You are trying to simultaneously
defend that premise that god obscures his existence to protect our free will
and that god does not obscure his existence
. Both of those positions cannot be simultaneously true. They cannot be. It is nonsensical. You have to pick just one
Does god obscure his existence? If so, why? If not, present the evidence